Show me the measurable evidence that the decline in investments has 'triggered' the quotas; this claim lacks objective data.
What is the observable correlation threshold between a decrease in spending and the introduction of stringent regulations?
The absence of a clear causal mechanism, with an international comparison sample, does not allow us to conclude such a direct relationship.
For example, similar European directives already existed long before any specific local investment decline, indicating that the decision is not solely an immediate reaction.