What is the observed correlation threshold that establishes a direct causality between the decline in investments and the implementation of quotas?
Without a quantifiable measure proving that the 18% drop in expenses, and not other pressures, necessarily precipitated this regulatory decision, the claim is speculative.
For example, if government discussions on promoting local content were already advanced before this decline, its direct impact would be diluted.
There is a lack of a representative sample demonstrating that an equivalent decline systematically leads to regulatory intervention of this magnitude.